Answers
Jan 17, 2013 - 01:42 PM
good question - I'm looking forward to the answer. Doesn't appear to make any sense to me either.
Jan 17, 2013 - 05:18 PM
I take no credit for this but I found this abridged answer on another site:
"There are several important things that no one has mentioned so far...
Remember, you're dealing with two different languages between whose words there is NOT a one-to-one correspondence most of the time. Many of the structures of both languages are different. This means that not every single construction in Spanish and English are alike.
We don't have a "to-infinitive" ("to" minus "infinitive") in Spanish, but it exists in English....Often, the "to" you see before the base form of an English verb is part of that verb's infinitive form. It is true that a preposition "to" exists as well, but that's not the same "to" you see as part of an infinitive verb ...: not every "to" you see is a preposition.
So, trying to translate "I want to see Mr Smith" into Spanish, word for word, won't take you anywhere because there's no Spanish word for that particle "to": "Deseo ver al Sr. Smith". There is no preposition before "ver" either in English or in Spanish.
The thing is that, in English, the infinitive can be expressed by means of more than one form. And, when you translate an English infinitive into Spanish, the presence or the absence of the particle "to" won't necessarily make a difference.
One interesting fact about the English language is that, there is a rule that allows you to tell when "to" before is a particle, part of an infinitive, and when it is a preposition: infinitives that follow the PREPOSITION "to" will end in -ING. Infinitives that follow the "to" particle used for the infinitive will keep their base form. This is a general rule...
Compare these sentences:
1. "I hope to see you soon."
2. "I look forward to seeing you soon."
The meanings are similar (not exactly the same, but similar). But look at the constructions. Why "hope to see" BUT "look forward to seeing"?
The "to" after "hope" is part of the infinitive that follows: "to see"; it's NOT a preposition.
On the other hand, the "to" after looking is not part of the following verb; it is a preposition and that shows in the fact that the form of the next verb is "seeING".
By the same token, in the example "I want to eat", "to" is NOT a preposition.
In some cases, a verb is not followed by a "to-infinitive", but by what is called a "bare infinitive": the infinitive without "to".
That is the case with most modal verbs, for example: "I should sleep". You CAN'T say "I should TO sleep".
And you translate both sentences into Spanish without a preposition:
I want to sleep = Deseo/Quiero dormir.
I should sleep: Debería dormir.
It happens with some other verbs too:
"My mother likes to make me get up very early every day." "Get up" is an infinitive, yet it's not a "to-infinitive", and the preposition "to" is not present, either.
At the same time, there are Spanish infinitives that take the preposition "a" before another infinitive. But this has nothing to do with English grammar. This is pure Spanish grammar, and it's not a good idea to "force" the grammar of one language into that of a different language.
In Spanish, verbs like "comenzar", "empezar", "ir", "venir", and others, take the preposition "a" before another infinitive form (there are verbs that take other prepositions):
-comenzar a estudiar = start/begin to study
-empezar a reír = start/begin to laugh
-ir a dormir = go to sleep (even "go to bed")
-venir a jugar = come to play
-aprender a leer = learn to read
-enseñar a bailar = teach (someone) to dance
-ayudar a sanar = help (someone) to heal
("acabar a + infinitive" does NOT exist in Spanish)
There are Spanish structures that don't exist in English just as there are English structures that don't exist in Spanish....literal translation will often lead you nowhere."
"There are several important things that no one has mentioned so far...
Remember, you're dealing with two different languages between whose words there is NOT a one-to-one correspondence most of the time. Many of the structures of both languages are different. This means that not every single construction in Spanish and English are alike.
We don't have a "to-infinitive" ("to" minus "infinitive") in Spanish, but it exists in English....Often, the "to" you see before the base form of an English verb is part of that verb's infinitive form. It is true that a preposition "to" exists as well, but that's not the same "to" you see as part of an infinitive verb ...: not every "to" you see is a preposition.
So, trying to translate "I want to see Mr Smith" into Spanish, word for word, won't take you anywhere because there's no Spanish word for that particle "to": "Deseo ver al Sr. Smith". There is no preposition before "ver" either in English or in Spanish.
The thing is that, in English, the infinitive can be expressed by means of more than one form. And, when you translate an English infinitive into Spanish, the presence or the absence of the particle "to" won't necessarily make a difference.
One interesting fact about the English language is that, there is a rule that allows you to tell when "to" before is a particle, part of an infinitive, and when it is a preposition: infinitives that follow the PREPOSITION "to" will end in -ING. Infinitives that follow the "to" particle used for the infinitive will keep their base form. This is a general rule...
Compare these sentences:
1. "I hope to see you soon."
2. "I look forward to seeing you soon."
The meanings are similar (not exactly the same, but similar). But look at the constructions. Why "hope to see" BUT "look forward to seeing"?
The "to" after "hope" is part of the infinitive that follows: "to see"; it's NOT a preposition.
On the other hand, the "to" after looking is not part of the following verb; it is a preposition and that shows in the fact that the form of the next verb is "seeING".
By the same token, in the example "I want to eat", "to" is NOT a preposition.
In some cases, a verb is not followed by a "to-infinitive", but by what is called a "bare infinitive": the infinitive without "to".
That is the case with most modal verbs, for example: "I should sleep". You CAN'T say "I should TO sleep".
And you translate both sentences into Spanish without a preposition:
I want to sleep = Deseo/Quiero dormir.
I should sleep: Debería dormir.
It happens with some other verbs too:
"My mother likes to make me get up very early every day." "Get up" is an infinitive, yet it's not a "to-infinitive", and the preposition "to" is not present, either.
At the same time, there are Spanish infinitives that take the preposition "a" before another infinitive. But this has nothing to do with English grammar. This is pure Spanish grammar, and it's not a good idea to "force" the grammar of one language into that of a different language.
In Spanish, verbs like "comenzar", "empezar", "ir", "venir", and others, take the preposition "a" before another infinitive form (there are verbs that take other prepositions):
-comenzar a estudiar = start/begin to study
-empezar a reír = start/begin to laugh
-ir a dormir = go to sleep (even "go to bed")
-venir a jugar = come to play
-aprender a leer = learn to read
-enseñar a bailar = teach (someone) to dance
-ayudar a sanar = help (someone) to heal
("acabar a + infinitive" does NOT exist in Spanish)
There are Spanish structures that don't exist in English just as there are English structures that don't exist in Spanish....literal translation will often lead you nowhere."
Jan 19, 2013 - 03:17 PM
Thanks, that makes sense. Preposition versus actual part of the infinitive.