Answers
Nov 12, 2013 - 09:01 PM
I believe it is because you are using the past tense of "ser" instead of "estar". The past tense of "ser" is the same as for "ir"; hence, "fue".
Nov 20, 2013 - 09:01 PM
I'm a native spanish speaker.You can say both and be understood.We've spoken ser and estar interchangeably and although it may be "scholarly incorrect" languages are much easier if gammar isnt the focus.Instead of trying to understand how or whay something is said that way,I just accept thats how someting is said....