Answers
Mar 01, 2015 - 02:36 PM
Ok so I got very interested in this, and didn't find many explanations, but one that seems to be the best is to use "de" to replace para (or "for") + english present partiple. For example: "de comer" = "for eating", so although you would translate "something to eat", it's actually using the grammatical sense "something for eating".
Tú quieres algo de beber = Tú quieres algo para beber = You want something for drinking. Of course, this is the action of drinking, not an object to help drinking like a glass.
I hope I got this right, let's see what Fluenz has to say about this.
Tú quieres algo de beber = Tú quieres algo para beber = You want something for drinking. Of course, this is the action of drinking, not an object to help drinking like a glass.
I hope I got this right, let's see what Fluenz has to say about this.
Mar 02, 2015 - 05:00 PM
I think the best explanation is there: http://forum.wordreference.com/showth...
Tengo algo de beber - I have something that can be drunk, that I could drink if I wanted to.
Tengo algo que beber - I have something that I must drink.
Tengo algo por beber - I have something that is pending to be drunk, that I have not yet drunk
So for the "algo de comer" that's what I was thinking when I said "for eating" in my earlier post, it can be eaten, i could eat it if i wanted to.
Also, "a" is not used because "a" indicates movement, so you would use it like this: "voy a comer", but not "tengo algo a comer".
Tengo algo de beber - I have something that can be drunk, that I could drink if I wanted to.
Tengo algo que beber - I have something that I must drink.
Tengo algo por beber - I have something that is pending to be drunk, that I have not yet drunk
So for the "algo de comer" that's what I was thinking when I said "for eating" in my earlier post, it can be eaten, i could eat it if i wanted to.
Also, "a" is not used because "a" indicates movement, so you would use it like this: "voy a comer", but not "tengo algo a comer".