Answers
Nov 27, 2015 - 11:19 AM
Could be because of the emphasis of "I". For example: "yo voy a la cocina" could be heard as "joe", but "yo, a contrario, voy al restaurante", would be heard as "yo", because there is an emphasis of the fact that "me", I go to the restaurant.
Dec 12, 2015 - 04:02 PM
Just about the only native speakers who would pronunce "yo" as "joe" would be Argentenians. With a "Z" sound as in "azure" The same with "LL".
Dec 13, 2015 - 11:57 PM
thanks, Robert but (..I hope..) I posted for "Spain Spanish" and it that they use "joe". I understand it is different in Latin American. I am not thinking that erhaps I should have signed up for the Latin American version because I stumble with mentally translating "Y" to "J" :-). I am guessing that they had a lapse when taping this one. Anyway, I'm going to Mexico for a short vacation in January so you comment is useful. thanks
Dec 13, 2015 - 11:59 PM
Hi Fabrice - thanks for the suggestion but I'm not sure about that since they have not mentioned previously in the course. I'm thinking it is more likely that it was just a lapse between recording both 'Spanish for Spain" and "Spanish for Latin America". Or my hearing is bad...which is also possible! thanks
Dec 18, 2015 - 01:13 PM
The fricative "joe" sound is typical of Argentina (Buenos Aires) where the same sound is used for "ll". Some new learners of Spanish try to use it as an affectation, but it is not advisable.